A teacher-trainee asked me this question :
“I imagined him winning the game” vs. “I imagined his winning the game”
Which is more common or makes sense?
In the first sentence, is ‘him” an object for the verb or a subject for the gerund? In the second sentence, is ‘his’ a subject for the gerund?
As you know, Korean students tend to analyze a sentence, and some asked me the questions above. My answer was just ‘”Both may be grammatically correct.'” Was I right or wrong?
I think you were correct in saying that both are grammatically correct. Of course we know that “him” is an object pronoun http://www.esldesk.com/grammar/pronouns and that “his” is a possessive adjective http://www.esldesk.com/grammar/pronouns#possessive_adjectives This means that they become the object complement. http://www.grammar-monster.com/glossary/object_complement.htmHowever, it also seems that both of these can also act as the subject of the gerund.http://english.stackexchange.com/questions/2625/when-is-a-gerund-supposed-to-be-preceded-by-a-possessive-pronoun However, it did take a lot of research for me to be able to tell you this. According to the link I shared, this can be found in Cambridge Grammar of the English Language.I hope this gives you some peace of mind! :) Let me know what you think.